## 441A - Valera and Antique Items

Problem author gridnevvvit

You need to implement what written in statement. You could act like that: let's calculate *q*_{i} — minimum item price from seller *i*. Then if *q*_{i} < *v*, we can make a deal with seller *i*, otherwise we can't.

Jury's solution: 6850474

## 441B - Valera and Fruits

Problem author gridnevvvit

Let's start counting days from 1 to 3001. Let current day be *i*. Additionally, we'll have *cur* variable — number of fruit we didn't collect previous days. Suppose *now* fruit is ripen current day. If *now* + *cur* ≤ *v*, we need to add *now* + *cur* to answer and update *cur* value (*cur* = 0). Otherwise we add *v* to answer, but *cur* value need to be updated as follows. Let *tv* = *max*(*v* - *cur*, 0). Then *cur* = *now* - *tv*. In other words, we try to collect fruits that will not be collectable next day.

Additionally, problem could be solved with , but this is not required.

Jury's solution: 6850502

**Bonus**. Suppose fruit can be collected at days *a*_{i}, *a*_{i} + 1, ..., *a*_{i} + *T*_{i}, where *T*_{i} — some number for each tree. How to solve this task optimally?

Additionaly, for every day there will be its own *v* (maximum number of fruit collected).

## 441C - Valera and Tubes

Problem author gridnevvvit

The solution is pretty simple. First we need to make such route that visits every cell exactly one time. It is not difficult:

- Initially we stay in (1, 1) cell. Moving from left to right, we should reach (1,
*m*) cell. - Move to the next line, in (2,
*m*) cell. Moving from right to left, we should reach the most left sell of 2nd line, (2, 1). - Move to the next line. Repeat 1. and 2. while we have not all cells visited.

After that, we can easily find the solution: you can make first (*k* - 1) tubes length be 2, and the last *k* tube will consist from cells left.

Jury's solution: 6850508

## 441D - Valera and Swaps

Problem author dans

In this task you should represent permutation as graph with *n* vertexes, and from every vertex *i* exists exactly one edge to vertex *p*[*i*]. It's easy to understand that such graph consists of simple cycles only.

If we make swap (*i*, *j*), edges and will become edges and respectively. Then if *i* and *j* is in the same cycle, this cycle will break:

but if they are in different cycles, these cycles will merge into one:

this means that every swap operation increases number of cycles by one, or decreases it by one.

Assuming all above, to get permutation *q* from permutation *p*, we need to increase (or decrease) number of cycles in *p* to *n* - *m*. Let *c* — number of cycles in *p*. Then *k* always equals |(*n* - *m*) - *c*|.

For satisfying lexicographical minimality we will review three cases:

1) *n* - *m* < *c*

It's easy to understand, that in this case you must decrease cycles number by merging cycles one by one with cycle containing vertex 1. This way every swap has form (1, *v*), where *v* > 1. Because every cycle vertex is bigger than previous cycle vertex, this case can be solved with *O*(*n*).

2) *n* - *m* > *c*

In this case you should break cycle for every vertex, making swap with smallest possible vertex (it should be in this cycle too). This could be done if represent cycle by line . As soon as every cycle is broken with linear asymptotics, this case solution works with *O*(*n*^{2}).

**Bonus**: this way of representing cycle lets us optimize solution to asymptotics, you may think how.

3) *n* - *m* = *с*

Besause in this case *k* = 0, there is nothing need to be swapped.

It's highly recommended to inspect jury's solution: 6850515

## 441E - Valera and Number

Problem author gridnevvvit

We will solve the task by calculating dynamic *d*[*i*][*mask*][*last*][*cnt*] — possibility of getting *v* which 8 last bits equals *mask*, 9th bit equals *last*, *cnt* — number of consecutive bits (following 9th bit) and equal to *last*, after *i* steps.

Good, but why we left other bits? It's clear, that using operation + = 1 we can change only first 0 bit with index ≥ 9.

Transitions is pretty obvious: we add 1 or multiply by 2 (it's recommended to see them in jury's solution). Perhaps, you should ask following question. For example, we have number *x* = 1011111111 in binary representation.

And at this moment, we make + = 1. According to all above, we must go to *d*[1][0][1][2] condition, but we can't do that because we don't have any information about 1 in 10th position. But, as we can not change any bit with index ≥ 9 (*mask* = 0) we make transition to *d*[1][0][1][1].

Jury's solution: 6850523

**Bonus**. Let us have other pseudocode.

```
// input x, k, p
for(i = 0; i < k; i += 1) {
if (x is even) {
rnd = random number from interval [1, 100]
if (rnd <= p)
x *= 2;
else
x += 1;
} else {
x *= 2;
}
}
s = 0;
while (x is even) {
x /= 2;
s += 1;
}
```

As before, you must find expected value of *s*.

How effectively you can solve this problem? Can you prove your solution?

**Your corrections of my bad English are welcome, thank you.**

When will the eng for div2 d, e come out?

When will english translations be available?

I think the google translation is not — so — bad, so you can try it out!

Now.

In problem E editorial, what is 'v' (mentioned in first line)? I would also like to know how you arrived at the DP state you described. Thanks!

v— is some number, which satisfy this pattern (mask, last, cnt).Because number of operation is small ( ≤ 200) then we can understand, that only last 8 can be changed by adding operations (and first zero bit with index ≥ 9). So, after that we will have such dp states

Can you please give example of how the states are represented by dp[i][mask][last][cnt]?

Sorry,I just press the wrong button.I just want to ask,as there are so many states,will it TLE?Is the transfrom O(1)?

How an easy solution for C!!! I wrote a complex code to do this task, and finally it was failed on system test :(

It's not the first time for me doing this mistake, any suggestion? any trick? How can I think about problems in the easier manner?

Sorry, but I don't understand well dans' explanation about problem D, why always do we need to increase (or decrease) number of cycles in p to n - m?....... What about if we have only a cycle with length m + 1, could be that q? can anyone explain that?

Because to break a cycle into 1-length cycles with length

lyou needl- 1 swaps. Then to break all the cycles you need swaps.cis number of cycles inp.sorry I never counted the cycles with lenght 1 :P

Problem D-

how output of

3

2 3 1

0

is

2

1 2 1 3

this will happen with above ans (231) -> (132) -> (312) but final state should be (123)

EDIT: I got it. swap is operated on index. my mistake.I am unable to understand how the graph is used for representing the permutation,can anyone help me??If there exist a only 1 edge from i to p[i], then how cycles are formed??

This image shows graph representation of permutation 3 4 5 2 1.

okay got it,thanks

can aNybody plz explAin problem E, this type of problem is completely new for me or link to some tutorial?

Problem E could be solved using dynamic programming method. It is very common, so the better way is to inspect others solutions. Even this task could be solved using DP in different ways. If you are completely new to DP, you can read Wikipedia, inspect posts on Codeforces, or simply use google for it.

Hi guys,

I've seen others' dp solutions such as 6963686 that have used way easier dp solutions than the one in the analysis (this solution uses only 2 dimensions for the dp). Does anyone know an explanation to their solutions? I've read them really throughly and don't quite understand them. Thanks everyone for their help!

`dp[i][j]`

— answer forx+jif we haveioperations left.Im sorry i can't understand what variable m stands for,

can someone please explain it to me ??

Seems, that in problem C and problem D m is variable from the input.

There is a similar problem to problem D

"Silly Sort" SPOJ SSORT / 2481 Live Archive / 2002 World Finals ACM

I solved it with the same idea for problem D. The property of that every swap increase or decrease the number of cycles in a permutation(see graph in tutorial) is very useful.

Links:

SSORT

Well, these problems are not similar. They use similar idea, but greedy algorithms are different.

I don't refer for greedy algorithm , in fact i explain in my comment about idea of (that every swap increase or decrease the number of cycles in the graph by one)

This is the similar.

I think this is really a great contest especially the problem D and E.I have never seen these problems and I have learnt a lot from these problems.

The case 2 of 441D - Валера и обмены can be solved in

O(N) using stackNote that the numbers you choose to swap with the same

iare always increasingWe can interate through

p[i] →p[p[i]] → ... with a stack to maintain a lexicographical-smallest increasing sub-ringWhen you pop some elements, you remove a monotonic sub-ring from the current ring, and thus the order to swap for the sub-ring is certian

Just store them, you dont have to recaculate them

Total time complexity:

O(N)See my code 22617043 for details

Amazing!!! XD

can anyone explain problem E solution more .. i see many solutions with 2d dp . what is the logic there ?

possibility of getting v which 8 last bits equals mask??

which last bits u r talking of .. kahin bhi kuch bhi likh doge answer ke liye ? gridnevvvit

But, as we can not change any bit with index ≥ 9 (mask = 0) we make transition to d[1][0][1][1].??

why u cant change .. explain in detail..

We can do div2 problem B in O(n) too!! solution: 65319642