GreenGrape's blog

By GreenGrape, 3 months ago, translation, ,

Note that the number of hacks is palindromic!

Code: 35036267

Code: 35036334
Code (bless pragmas): 35036420

Code: 35036537

Code: 35053688

Code (backward dp): 35036591
Code (forward dp): 35036674

Note that the solutions might not fully match the editorial, though the ideas are still the same.

Code (GreenGrape): 35055945, 35055961
Code (KAN): 35055995
Code (x3n): 35055977

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 » 3 months ago, # |   +1 Thanks for the pretty early editorial!!!
 » 3 months ago, # | ← Rev. 4 →   +21 In solution for problem E you wrote that time complexity is . Can you explain why ? Because for every n we are doing operations so I think it's more like
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +31 It was possible to solve this problem faster — we can use standard trick and write ci using O(logci) nominals. Than complexity is .
•  » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +24 Instead we can use two pointers Here To achieve previous complexity.
•  » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +10 What do you mean by nominals?
•  » » » » 3 months ago, # ^ | ← Rev. 3 →   +26 Say c = 2n + k, where k < 2n. Then, these 2 are equivalent: choosing an element [0...c] times and choosing subsets of {20, 21...2n - 1, k + 1} where an element of subset is the number of times we choose the element.
•  » » » » » 3 months ago, # ^ | ← Rev. 2 →   0 So then we can compute the maximum value of min(dp[i—1][k] + X, W + k * B) + cost[i] * k, where k takes ci different values by splitting the interval into O(logci) intervals and taking max from each?Isn't that slower than the solution using a queue?
•  » » » » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +9 Saw your submission — 35045018, got the idea. Thanks :)
•  » » » » » 2 months ago, # ^ |   0 Can you suggest a problem where this ideia is necessary?
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ | ← Rev. 2 →   +20 It's indeed as you said, but we can achieve the previously said complexity:We have dp[i][j] = max(dp[i][j], min(dp[i — 1][j — k] + X, W + (j — k) * B) — cost[i] * k). Let's get a new k = j — old k. Now, dp[i][j] = max(dp[i][j], min(dp[i — 1][k] + X, W + (k) * B) + cost[i] * (k — j)). We can take -cost[i] * j from inside to getdp[i][j] = -cost[i] * j + max(dp[i][j], min(dp[i — 1][k] + X, W + (k) * B) + cost[i] * k)Now we can use a Max_queue (push element, pop element as in a queue but answers what's the max inside the queue) to solve it in O(n * sum(birds)). Edit: since nothing inside the max/min depends on j
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +8 how to write the Mathematical formula like above?
•  » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   0 read about LaTex formulas. On codeforces they must be in  signs.example: x_i - a^{3} \le \sqrt[5]{ \frac{1}{f(x)} }
•  » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +3 I learned it from this blog: http://codeforces.com/blog/entry/20729.
 » 3 months ago, # |   0 For 922B - Magic Forest it is possible to write a bruteforce solution and just calculate answer for all possible input dynamically (O(n^3) with no optimisation). And then use pre-calculated answers in final submission.
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ | ← Rev. 2 →   0 No, it's not possible, it will be tle because n is too large for O(n^3) to fit in a 1s time limit.
•  » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   0 he mean it will be O(1) because he will get all results from 1 to 2500 and save it in array so it will be O(1)
•  » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +8 It's even possible to pass with O(N^3) without compiler optimisation. http://codeforces.com/contest/922/submission/35010602
•  » » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +1 I think your code is optimised because c < a+b for (c = b; c <= n && c < a + b; c++)
•  » » » » » 3 months ago, # ^ | ← Rev. 2 →   0 Yeah I mean, it's not a "compiler" optimisation (pragma) unlike the editorial, and is still an O(N^3) algorithm.
 » 3 months ago, # |   +1 Very good contest ! The problems were all short and I enjoyed solving it immensely !
 » 3 months ago, # |   0 editorial of problem D is not available. How to solve Problem D.
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ | ← Rev. 2 →   +6 Briefly: it is not hard to proof that cnts and cnth in (s[i] + s[j]) and in (s[j] + s[i]) equals. So answer will depend only on their relative location.We can sort all si with any n·logn sort algorithm, using ans(s[i] + s[j]) > ans(s[j] + s[i]) as compare function.Then build string t from sorted array s1, s2, ..., sn and output ans(t).http://codeforces.com/contest/922/submission/35039116
 » 3 months ago, # |   0 In C,my brute force solution passes. i can't understand why,can anyone explain??
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ | ← Rev. 2 →   +5 I think it means that condition m[n % i] == 1 becomes true at small k (why? theory of numbers/modules and etc.), else you stop iterating and output "Yes".
 » 3 months ago, # |   0 When I did not read that in D and for an hour was trying to find the way to calculate dp for 107 birds :D
 » 3 months ago, # |   0 There were so many hacks in problem A that I've thought this will be a regular unrated contest)))
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   0 Why? 99% author planned (and waited) many hacks in A.
 » 3 months ago, # |   +4 What is an official solution for problem F?
 » 3 months ago, # |   +7 What about the editorial of problem F? I want to know how to solve it, thank you!
 » 3 months ago, # |   +7 I think this tournament was a good tournament! The problem was neat and fun. I have a question in Problem C I know that K is always above 43, but I do not know why. When K is 6t, 6t + 1, 6t + 2, 6t + 3, 6t + 4, we prove it all, but when K is 6t + 5, we can not prove it. Please help me! Please!
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ | ← Rev. 2 →   +11 What's wrong with the solution of the editorial? Have you read it?If there are no repeated remainders in n % 1, n % 2, ..., n % 43, then it has to be the case that n % 1 = 0, n % 2 = 1, n % 3 = 2, ..., n % 43 = 42. This is equivalent to 1 | n + 1, 2 | n + 1, ..., 43 | n + 1. Therefore also LCM(1, 2, ..., 43) | n + 1, so 9419588158802421600 | n + 1. Therefore this is only possible if n >= 9419588158802421599.
•  » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +5 Thank you! I think my thinking was short on this part. Thank you so kindly.
 » 3 months ago, # |   0 Can someone explain me why in Magic Forest we have to include conditionals like x < j and i+j <= x (x = i ^ j) I understand why there's x > n but I can't figure out meaning of other conditionals.
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +9 x < j: in that case the third number is smaller than the second, which is not allowed. The statement say that we have to count tripples (a, b, c) with a ≤ b ≤ c. i + j < x: if this is the case than we don't have a triangle. E.g. try to draw a triangle with the side lengths 1, 1, and 3. Impossible. For more information: Existance of a triange
•  » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   0 Oh Thanks a lot! How could I miss it ;O
 » 3 months ago, # |   0 Could anyone tell, in question "C", how does complexity O(min(k,log(n)) is calculated? Is that an approximation(to achieve >43) or can we calculate maximum number through LCM in O(log(number)).
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   0 Look up the sequence of lcm of first n integers on the Internet. (> 43) then lcm > 10^18.
•  » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   0 That is okay, I know that LCM of first >43 integers will exceed 10^18. I was asking how the complexity has the log(n) factor. It means that we can calculate maximum integer whose LCM it is in O(log(n)).
 » 3 months ago, # |   -17 Hello, GUYS!Given a 2D array with each cell containing either 0 or 1, 0 meaning clean cell and 1 meaning dirty cell. We have a vacuum cleaner that starts at location (0,0) and we want to clean all the dirty cells. The robot can move up, down, left or right. each movement costs 1 points. How to clean all the cells with the min number of moves to minimize the score? Thank you very much
 » 3 months ago, # | ← Rev. 2 →   0 Iam wondering why my brute-force solution for C got accepted .difficulty is like C
 » 3 months ago, # |   -6 I solved 922C in O(1) time. Although, the solution in the editorial seems straight forward, it didn't strike me during the contest! Solution link here.
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +3 Your gcd function doesn't work in constant time so it is O(log n)
 » 3 months ago, # | ← Rev. 3 →   +18 Can anyone please briefly explain the claim em - k <  = C.m1 / 3 that is made in the editorial for problem F.
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +8 Number of divisors of n is approximately
•  » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +15 Possibly a dumb question but how do we show that? It's a cool fact but I'd liek to understand it better.
•  » » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +6 See Growth Rate
•  » » » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +5 Thanks
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ | ← Rev. 2 →   +6 m is the least number such that e(m) >= k. so e(m-1) < k. between m and m-1 you removed edges of divisors of m. so e(m)-number of divisors of m < k, so e(m)-k < number of divisors of m. and number of divisors of m has (approximately) an upper bound of m^(1/3)
•  » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   0 I got it now. Thank You everyone.
 » 3 months ago, # | ← Rev. 2 →   +3 My solution drops out all i (starting from 2) if cntpairs(i) ≤ currentpairs - k. I'm not sure if it is correct solution but it got AC: http://codeforces.com/contest/922/submission/35051349
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   0 my idea is like yours, but i'm not sure too, do u kown the reason now? can u tell me? I've found that a lot of people pass the problem but they don't know why it works.
 » 3 months ago, # |   0 Can any one provide the topdown dp solution for problem E?
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   0 It's just a knapsack problem
 » 3 months ago, # |   0 Can someone elaborate C? I don't get how k is approximated to 43?
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ | ← Rev. 3 →   0 We are required to ensure that 1 divides (n+1) or 1 | n + 1, 2 | n + 1 and so on till k | n + 1 if the answer exists. So n + 1 has to be divisible by all of these. If for example n + 1 is divisble by 2 and 3, then it is also divisible by 6. Similarly we find for what kmin is the LCM(1 .. kmin) above our input limit. That gives us kmin = 43 when LCM is 19 or 20 digits long and answers don't work onwards for given input range
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +3
 » 3 months ago, # |   0 my code's complexity nlogn but still pass the problem c.the date of this context is amazing.
 » 3 months ago, # | ← Rev. 3 →   +3 My AC solution to F: http://codeforces.com/contest/922/submission/35125488First I find the least m where e(m) >= k (like in the editorial). then I see how many edges should be removed to reach k, let their name be "excess". I followed a greedy approach where: while excess != 0, I remove the node from the interval [floor(m/2)+1, m] which has the greatest number of divisors and this number of divisors is <= excess, then subtract this number from excess. I know that the initial value of excess is O(m^(1/3)), but why does this greedy approach always succeed ?
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ | ← Rev. 2 →   +8 For the cases where the number of primes in the interval [floor(m/2)+1, m] is >= excess it succeeds because the primes will always make it possible to reach k. but for the 16 possible counters mentioned in the editorial, why does this approach succeed ?
 » 3 months ago, # |   0 For Problem F, " You could've even written recursive bruteforce " is mentioned in the editorial. What would be the time complexity for the same ?
 » 3 months ago, # |   0 can someone please explain why (n % i = i-1 : for all valid i) implies (n+1) % i = 0!
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   +3
•  » » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   0 thanks for this :)
 » 3 months ago, # |   0 My solution 35116450 for Problem F uses the idea in GreenGrape's 35055945 solution with only difference in that I did upper_bound over all numbers (not only over primes) and surprisingly it got AC. Fortunately it happened after the contest, to be fair with others. Seems like the acceptance criteria is much less intimidating than the problem statement looks.
•  » » 3 months ago, # ^ |   0 if (c1 == 0) { val = INT_MAX; } I think this is the opposite of what you wanted to do? If c1 equals to 0, that means there are no 's', so it should go to the end of the final string.For example, the answer of 2 sh hshould be 2 with the string "shh", but your code make it "hsh" so it prints 1 instead.Also, the answer could exceed the range of int, like in case of you have 50000 's' first then 50000 'h', which makes the answer 2.5 billion.
•  » » » » 3 months ago, # ^ | ← Rev. 6 →   +3 Let us solve this problem step by step.First, take the bird as an item, the number of birds is the amount of this item，the bag volume in this problem is not necessary to defined accurately, for your convenienc,you can take the sum(c) as the bag volume :DIn this problem, the choice of birds is in a certain order.“Moving only forward",but in the knapsack,we actually consider each item in the order we specify. for(int i = 1; i <= n; ++i) //consider each item in the order we specify. for(int j = sumc; j >= a[i]; --j) right? So it doesn't affect us to solve this problem.Now, this problem turns into a multiple knapsack problem（I don't know the exact English name of this problem，but i think u can understand it , right?）Let's study how to solve this simple problem before adding other conditions，one of the ways is to dismantling the same items into different items (but their volume is the same, in this problem each bird's volume is 1,value is -cost[i]).The problem becomes a common knapsack problem.For instance，you have You have 6 A items and 4 B items,You can think of them as 10 things, but some things are the same volume and same value.By the way,The best way to split it is this：for example , you have 16 A items you can dismantle them into 1,2,4,8,1(2 ^ n ). You just have to think about the 5 pieces that are split up. Next, it's time to solve the problem completely.mana capacity indicates that the current backpack value cannot exceed this upper limit,and after putting the bird in the backpack, the value of the knapsack cannot be negative (mana exhausted).You need to solve the maximum volume of knapsack that can be filled up under this restriction( Of course, it can't exceed the total number of birds, that is sum (c).）my english not very well , if u cant understand,you can see my code http://codeforces.com/contest/922/submission/35191705Of course, in fact, just dp[maxc] is enough,A bit of redundancy in this code It's not recursively, and if you need it, I can write a code to show uMaybe some details I forgot to answer
 » 3 months ago, # | ← Rev. 5 →   0 I accept the problem F just now, but i still don't kown why i can accept. first i find the min m satisfy e(m) >= k, then i choose the prime from 2 to m, Obviously, if I delete a prime number, it will reduce the M / P pair. If I delete the prime number, the total pair is still larger than k, and I'll delete it。here is my mainly code （I didn't do any other extra judgment as solution.） for(int i = 1; i <= m; ++i){ if(prime[i] && sum - m/i >= k){ ans[i] = false; sum -= m/i; } if(sum == k){ break; } } i want to kown how to prove this idea is correct？？？In addition, I want to know the details of the practice of recursion. Can anyone explain to me more about the principles and proof of F in more detail? I admit that I might be stupid: D