I was trying this 603B - Moodular Arithmetic, I couldn't get the idea and read the editorial.
I have a doubt.
for k > = 2 case :
we choose m such that k m = 1 mod p
and also it has been proved that f(k i * n mod p ) = k i * f(n) mod p
and now if we choose some f(n) , we get the value of f(n) , f(k * n mod p ) ,.... f(k m - 1 * n mod p )
Understood until this point
I didn't understand from here..
Therefore, if we choose f(n) of p - 1 / m integers n, we can get value of all p-1 non-zero integers. Since f(n) can be chosen in p ways for each of the p - 1 / m integers, the answer is p p - 1 / m
Can someone please help in understanding this one?
Thanks in Advance!