proof on a set theory problem

Revision en3, by Tornad0, 2016-07-25 20:10:52

Hi all, I have a problem when I want to do conjunction on a union without overflow. My problem is:

(1) let ans = empty

(2) for i from 1 to n do:

How to prove that

?

Edit: now I can prove it:D give me downvote if you are too stupid to solve this problem:D

Tags set theory, proof, overflow, stupid

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  Rev. Lang. By When Δ Comment
en3 English Tornad0 2016-07-25 20:10:52 31
en2 English Tornad0 2016-07-25 19:44:42 66
en1 English Tornad0 2016-07-25 17:26:44 264 Initial revision (published)