Is it true ?

Revision en1, by Polar_, 2020-03-30 13:39:52

Let's say I have an expression $$$x = k_1\cdot k_2 \cdot \cdot \cdot k_n \% MOD$$$.
Where $$$MOD$$$ is a prime number .
Now I want to divide $$$x$$$ with some $$$k_i\cdot k_j$$$ and I want to mutliply $$$x$$$ with some $$$p$$$ and $$$q$$$ .
Then is it true that $$$x = x{*}MODINV(k_i{*}k_j , MOD -2){*}p{*}q$$$ .

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en1 English Polar_ 2020-03-30 13:39:52 308 Initial revision (published)