### Rush's blog

By Rush, history, 2 months ago, ,

Hello guys.. i read the tutorial and the comments and i can't get it sadly so far.. so if anyone can give me a hint for this problem Magic Formula gonna be grateful too much. The thing that i can't get in the tutorial is the flipping of (i % 1) ^ (i % 2) ^ ..... (i % n) to (1 % i) ^ (2 % i) ^ ..... (3 % i) ... (n % i).. and WHY would he do so.. Thanks in advance.

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 » 2 months ago, # |   +1 $Q = \oplus_{i=1}^{n} q_i = \oplus_{i=1}^{n} (p_i \oplus_{j=1}^{n} (i\ mod\ j)) =$ $(\oplus_{i=1}^{n} p_i)\ \oplus\ (\oplus_{i=1}^{n} \oplus_{j=1}^{n} (i\ mod\ j)) =$ $(\oplus_{j=1}^{n} p_j)\ \oplus\ (\oplus_{j=1}^{n} \oplus_{j=1}^{n} (i\ mod\ j)) =$ $\oplus_{j=1}^{n} (p_j \oplus_{i=1}^{n} (i\ mod\ j)) =$ $\oplus_{i=1}^{n} (p_i \oplus_{j=1}^{n} (j\ mod\ i)) = \oplus_{i=1}^{n} c_i$because $a\ \oplus\ b = b\ \oplus\ a$
•  » » 2 months ago, # ^ |   0 Well thank you so much but the main reason that i didn't get is because there were a lot of mathematical symbols. When someone told me i believe the same thing but like that but can you correct me if i was wrong?Q = q1 ^ q2 ^ q3 ^ .... q1 = p1 ^ 1 % 1 ^ 1 % 2 ^ 1 % 3 ^ ... ^ 1 % n q2 = p2 ^ 2 % 1 ^ 2 % 2 ^ 2 % 3 ^ ... ^ 2 % n q3 = p3 ^ 3 % 1 ^ 3 % 2 ^ 3 % 3 ^ ... ^ 3 % n then after the rearrangement we can see that we can see that it can be written like that Q = (p1 ^ p2 ^ .... ^pn) ^ (1 % 1 ^ 1 % 2 ^ 1 % 3....) and so on. i believe it's literally the same thing you said but i am weak at math so i didn't get even from the tutorial cause of that many mathematical symbols even if it was easy.
•  » » » 2 months ago, # ^ |   0 and i was trying to put it in a nice format but i don't know how typing works in CF even though i left spaced between the sentence. break line