| # | User | Rating |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | ecnerwala | 3649 |
| 2 | Benq | 3581 |
| 3 | orzdevinwang | 3570 |
| 4 | Geothermal | 3569 |
| 4 | cnnfls_csy | 3569 |
| 6 | tourist | 3565 |
| 7 | maroonrk | 3531 |
| 8 | Radewoosh | 3521 |
| 9 | Um_nik | 3482 |
| 10 | jiangly | 3468 |
| # | User | Contrib. |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | maomao90 | 174 |
| 2 | awoo | 164 |
| 3 | adamant | 163 |
| 4 | TheScrasse | 159 |
| 5 | nor | 158 |
| 6 | maroonrk | 156 |
| 7 | -is-this-fft- | 152 |
| 8 | SecondThread | 147 |
| 9 | orz | 146 |
| 10 | pajenegod | 145 |
http://codeforces.com/contest/758/problem/F
Guys can anybody explain why the upper bounds for x and y for the ratio d = x/y is n-1 th root of 'r'?
I know it myself but I want to know what other coders think about it.
So basically explain why x <= power(r, 1 / (n — 1)) and y <= power(r, 1 / (n — 1))?
Auto comment: topic has been updated by bhikkhu (previous revision, new revision, compare).
Assuming you're talking about the variables x and y defined in the editorial, for y we have:
b × yn - 1 ≤ r
The case for x is the same if you just replace y with x.